Timeline for Notion of generalized function/distribution for functional derivatives?
Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Sep 17, 2012 at 11:23 | answer | added | AlexArvanitakis | timeline score: 2 | |
| Sep 17, 2012 at 10:48 | answer | added | jbc | timeline score: 2 | |
| Feb 22, 2011 at 8:01 | comment | added | Zen Harper | Maybe it would be helpful to give more details of a concrete question you want to solve with such a theory, so we know what you're aiming for. | |
| Feb 22, 2011 at 5:25 | comment | added | Nate Eldredge | Interesting question. I don't know anything about this. I guess the main obstruction is that distribution theory relies on integration by parts, with respect to a translation-invariant measure whose "derivative" vanishes, whereas in infinite dimensions no such measure exists. There are derivatives as you mention, and there are measures such as Gaussian ones, but without the translation invariance it doesn't seem that this would give a satisfactory theory. | |
| Feb 21, 2011 at 22:16 | history | asked | Will | CC BY-SA 2.5 |