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Feb 28, 2011 at 15:54 comment added Deane Yang Does this mean that it is hard to show that a rectangle does not have measure zero?
Feb 28, 2011 at 15:52 comment added Deane Yang Yes, thanks, Mark, for the explanation.
Feb 28, 2011 at 15:39 comment added Jim Conant Aha. That makes sense.
Feb 28, 2011 at 15:34 history edited Daniel Moskovich CC BY-SA 2.5
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Feb 28, 2011 at 3:34 comment added Mark I suppose that this is trivial if one constructs Lebesgue measure by first assigning measure to rectangles and in the end declares a set to be of measure zero if...well, if it has Lebesgue measure zero. If one merely has the classical definition of a zero measure set (a set such that $\forall \varepsilon > 0$ can be covered by countably many rectangles so that the sum of their volumes is at most $\varepsilon$), this is nontrivial. Actually Gowers already mentioned an equivalent result, in which the difficulty is more clear.
Feb 28, 2011 at 2:50 comment added Jim Conant I'm also missing the point. I always thought this was a trivial proposition.
Feb 28, 2011 at 2:14 comment added Deane Yang I must be completely missing the point here. Why is this hard? Can't you just show that there is a small cube inside $S$?
Feb 21, 2011 at 19:43 history answered Daniel Moskovich CC BY-SA 2.5