Timeline for Why does Tate's conjecture imply semisimplicity of crystalline Frobenius?
Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Nov 6, 2012 at 15:50 | vote | accept | David Loeffler | ||
| Nov 6, 2012 at 14:18 | answer | added | anon | timeline score: 1 | |
| Nov 6, 2012 at 0:26 | comment | added | jmc | Do they cite examples, or do they reference them? (Sorry, I could not stop myself.) | |
| Nov 5, 2012 at 21:56 | answer | added | Bruno Kahn | timeline score: 20 | |
| Feb 21, 2011 at 15:46 | comment | added | David Loeffler | According to the Oxford English Dictionary that usage is well-established in British English (they cite examples going back to 1957). | |
| Feb 21, 2011 at 5:56 | comment | added | Chandan Singh Dalawat | @David: They reference Milne's paper... Has reference become a verb in England too? | |
| Feb 20, 2011 at 20:26 | comment | added | mephisto | The reference "Milne 1986" in Milne's conference article should be to his 1986 Am J Math paper,where you will find the above proof, not to his book. | |
| Feb 20, 2011 at 20:13 | comment | added | mephisto | Tate's conjecture certainly implies that the eigenvalues $q^{i/2}$ occur semisimply (cf. Tate's article), and this implies that all eigenvalues occur semisimply by the Kunneth formula. | |
| Feb 20, 2011 at 19:41 | history | asked | David Loeffler | CC BY-SA 2.5 |