Timeline for Is there a reason why integrals are so much easier to evaluate than sums?
Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5
14 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jul 2, 2011 at 1:34 | vote | accept | teil | ||
| Feb 18, 2011 at 17:39 | answer | added | Richard Stanley | timeline score: 1 | |
| Feb 18, 2011 at 6:39 | comment | added | Yemon Choi | What's in a name? That which we call Negative refraction by any other word would smell as sweet. | |
| Feb 18, 2011 at 6:24 | answer | added | Kevin O'Bryant | timeline score: 33 | |
| Feb 18, 2011 at 5:32 | comment | added | Helge | To continue with Yemon's point. Why is $\sum_{m=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{\Gamma(m+1)}$ easier to evaluate than $\int_0^{\infty} \frac{1}{\Gamma(t+1)} dt$? In particular is anything known about my integral? | |
| Feb 18, 2011 at 5:08 | comment | added | teil | I am open to suggestions. Would questions of this nature be welcome at mathstackexchange? Do you think it best if I not ask questions here again? | |
| Feb 18, 2011 at 3:25 | answer | added | Ramsey | timeline score: 6 | |
| Feb 18, 2011 at 2:04 | answer | added | Theo Johnson-Freyd | timeline score: 19 | |
| Feb 18, 2011 at 1:05 | comment | added | Yemon Choi | It seems that many of your questions have a title "Why is X?" where the premise X involves subjective judgment ("easy"; "important"; "rigorous") and in some cases seems debatable rather than self-evident... | |
| Feb 18, 2011 at 1:00 | comment | added | Yemon Choi | I am not sure I find the assertion in the title obviously true | |
| Feb 18, 2011 at 0:41 | answer | added | Sándor Kovács | timeline score: 4 | |
| Feb 18, 2011 at 0:31 | answer | added | Gerhard Paseman | timeline score: 4 | |
| Feb 18, 2011 at 0:26 | answer | added | Robby Slaughter | timeline score: 0 | |
| Feb 18, 2011 at 0:19 | history | asked | teil | CC BY-SA 2.5 |