Timeline for Why can we define the moment map in this way (i.e. why is this form exact)?
Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5
10 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jul 3, 2014 at 22:57 | comment | added | José Figueroa-O'Farrill | Equivariance is simply the fact that the map $\mathfrak{g} \to C^\infty(M)$ is a Lie algebra homomorphism. | |
| Jul 3, 2014 at 9:56 | comment | added | Luc | I do not understand the part with $H^2$. I tought, that if $H^1=0$, then there is always a moment map. If further $H^2=0$, then this moment map can be made $G$-equivariant. But I do not see the equivariant part in your discussion. | |
| Feb 15, 2011 at 5:07 | vote | accept | Simon Rose | ||
| Feb 15, 2011 at 0:38 | history | edited | José Figueroa-O'Farrill | CC BY-SA 2.5 |
Completed the post.; added 15 characters in body; deleted 11 characters in body
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| Feb 14, 2011 at 22:44 | comment | added | Ben Webster♦ | Well, as comments show, I wasn't thinking with the highest level of clarity myself. That's the beauty of MO, you get to iteratively converge on the right answer. | |
| Feb 14, 2011 at 22:23 | comment | added | Simon Rose | To be fair, my question conflates the two, so your answer isn't actually that far off. | |
| Feb 14, 2011 at 21:45 | comment | added | Ben Webster♦ | Jose, I'm really confused by your answer. At least what I learned in my symplectic geometry class is that the answer is "yes." | |
| Feb 14, 2011 at 21:05 | comment | added | José Figueroa-O'Farrill | Good point! The answer is "No" if you omit the "Why" :) Otherwise the question is ill-posed. | |
| Feb 14, 2011 at 21:02 | comment | added | Mariano Suárez-Álvarez | How can "No" answer a question that begines with "Why..."? :) | |
| Feb 14, 2011 at 20:58 | history | answered | José Figueroa-O'Farrill | CC BY-SA 2.5 |