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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Oct 16, 2013 at 23:45 history edited David White CC BY-SA 3.0
Fixed typos, since this was on the front page anyway
Mar 29, 2013 at 1:56 answer added Ricardo Andrade timeline score: 12
Feb 17, 2011 at 10:24 history edited Johannes Ebert CC BY-SA 2.5
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Feb 17, 2011 at 8:57 comment added Gil Kalai So far, most answers were towards the specific 4 questions at the end of the question. If the intention was to create a larger list of counter examples in algebraic topology (or just homotopy theory) perhaps it should be explicitely encouraged...
Feb 14, 2011 at 17:18 answer added Tyler Lawson timeline score: 15
Feb 14, 2011 at 11:15 history edited Johannes Ebert CC BY-SA 2.5
another subquestion added
Feb 14, 2011 at 10:21 comment added Johannes Ebert @Elizabeth: this was indeed motivated by a paper I read, where this argument was used to show that $f$ is a homotopy equivalence. In the case under question, the argument was valid since both spaces were simple (and hence $\pi_n X \cong [S^n; X]$). The case of finite CWs is trivial, and in the infinite case I listed a counterexample in my question. Likewise, if $T$ can be infinite, the question is trivial.
Feb 14, 2011 at 10:15 comment added Johannes Ebert @John: that could be right, Hatcher is using maps $S^{n+m} \to S^n$ which are in the image of the J-homomorphism. If choosen correctlx, these cannot be detected by Steenrod operations.
Feb 14, 2011 at 7:08 answer added Sam Isaacson timeline score: 28
Feb 14, 2011 at 6:27 comment added Elizabeth S. Q. Goodman Can you motivate your question #2 ($[T, X]$ and $[T, Y]$) a little bit more? My first guess is that at least when X or Y is finite, if you just take T=X or Y respectively, you could find a representative map in [X, Y] corresponding to the identity on X or Y, determining a weak equivalence. Maybe you can even extend the argument using skeletons of X or Y. So I don't know a counterexample to that.
Feb 14, 2011 at 5:59 answer added Gil Kalai timeline score: 16
Feb 14, 2011 at 5:40 history made wiki Post Made Community Wiki by S. Carnahan
Feb 14, 2011 at 3:48 history edited Allen Knutson CC BY-SA 2.5
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Feb 14, 2011 at 3:46 comment added Tom Goodwillie For #3: $X$ could be empty. Also, slightly less silly remark, without the finiteness assumption there is the Eilenberg swindle: Let $X$ be the product of infinitely many copies of $Y$ and let $Z$ be a point.
Feb 14, 2011 at 1:52 comment added Sam Isaacson For #1, what about a $\mathbf{Z}/4$ Moore space versus a $\mathbf{Z}/8$ Moore space?
Feb 14, 2011 at 1:51 answer added Eric Wofsey timeline score: 13
Feb 14, 2011 at 1:44 comment added John Klein @Johannes: I haven't checked it would wager a eurocent that Hatcher's examples in mathoverflow.net/questions/5431 do what you want in #1: they are total spaces of spherical fibrations over spheres that carry a section.
Feb 14, 2011 at 1:44 answer added Jeff Strom timeline score: 12
Feb 14, 2011 at 1:39 comment added John Klein @John Palmieri: The suspension of $S^1 \times S^1$ is homotopy equivalent to $S^2 \vee S^2 \vee S^3$, because the suspension of the attaching map (the Whitehead product) is null homotopic. @Johannes: If $X = S^p \times S^q$ and $Y = S^p \vee S^q \vee S^{p+q}$, then $H^*(X)$ and $H^*(Y)$ are isomorphic as modules over the Steenrod algebra (however, the ring structures are not isomorphic).
Feb 14, 2011 at 0:34 comment added Johannes Ebert For #1: these spaces are homotopy equivalent, see Hatcher Proposition 4I.1. For #3: the question is indeed pretty trivial if the spaces can be of infinite type. You can also use that $\mathbb{R}^2 \cong \mathbb{R}$ as abelian groups.
Feb 14, 2011 at 0:24 comment added John Palmieri For #1, what about a suspension of a torus versus $S^2 \vee S^2 \vee S^3$? For #3, it's pretty easy to find examples where $X$ is not a finite CW complex (say, an infinite product of $Y \times Z$).
Feb 14, 2011 at 0:14 history asked Johannes Ebert CC BY-SA 2.5