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S Mar 2, 2019 at 12:53 history suggested Ali Taghavi
I added a tag "operator theory"
Mar 2, 2019 at 12:14 review Suggested edits
S Mar 2, 2019 at 12:53
Jul 16, 2016 at 12:36 answer added M.González timeline score: 4
Jul 15, 2016 at 16:41 answer added Peter timeline score: 1
Feb 11, 2011 at 1:19 comment added Theo Buehler Yes, the cokernel has to be taken in the "algebraic" sense 1, not in the "functional analytic" sense 2. To see this, take e.g. the inclusion of the Sobolev space $H^1$ in $L^2$, which is dense, so it has zero cokernel in the second sense.
Feb 11, 2011 at 1:10 history edited madmath CC BY-SA 2.5
added 507 characters in body; edited title; added 8 characters in body
Feb 10, 2011 at 5:38 comment added Yemon Choi You might also look at Theorem 1.4.7 of Murphy's "C*-algebras and operator theory", which says more or less what Chad Groft's answer does
Feb 10, 2011 at 3:57 answer added Chad Groft timeline score: 9
Feb 10, 2011 at 3:26 history asked madmath CC BY-SA 2.5