Timeline for Proofs without words
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Dec 23, 2020 at 8:54 | history | edited | Martin Sleziak | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
http -> https (the question was bumped anyway)
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| Dec 7, 2020 at 18:34 | comment | added | Toby Bartels | @GregMartin : The way this drawn assumes that $f(b)>f(a)$ and $g(b)>g(a)$, but that's all (and you can draw similar pictures for the other possibilities). If they're not increasing the whole way, then there will be stuff outside the shaded regions, but it will count both positively and negatively and so cancel. Thus, the shaded regions' areas do equal the stated integrals. | |
| Nov 19, 2015 at 19:16 | comment | added | Greg Martin | I guess this proof works only when $f$ and $g$ are both increasing? | |
| Oct 20, 2015 at 15:12 | history | edited | Stefan Kohl♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Fixed a link.
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| Jun 17, 2014 at 2:55 | history | edited | senshin | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
rehost to imgur to prevent linkrot
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| Jun 29, 2011 at 0:57 | comment | added | Matt Noonan | The same picture also gives an interesting formula for the integral of an inverse function! | |
| Feb 7, 2011 at 2:55 | comment | added | Mariano Suárez-Álvarez | @Daniel, I've turned the PDF into a PNG, and inserted the relevant part. I did keep the URL to the PDF for reference. Thanks, by the way! | |
| Feb 7, 2011 at 2:53 | history | edited | Mariano Suárez-Álvarez | CC BY-SA 2.5 |
added 227 characters in body; deleted 3 characters in body
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| Feb 7, 2011 at 1:27 | history | answered | Daniel Parry | CC BY-SA 2.5 |