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Jun 22, 2022 at 7:16 history edited CommunityBot
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Feb 7, 2011 at 17:47 history edited Sergey Melikhov CC BY-SA 2.5
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Feb 7, 2011 at 17:42 history edited Sergey Melikhov CC BY-SA 2.5
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Feb 7, 2011 at 15:00 history edited Sergey Melikhov CC BY-SA 2.5
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Feb 7, 2011 at 5:48 comment added Mike Shulman I'm personally inclined to believe in the fundamental pro-group as "the right thing to consider" for abstract reasons, but I'd hoped to hear some concrete reasons either for that or against it, e.g. in terms of what properties of spaces each can distinguish. It's not a priori obvious to me (nor is it, apparently, to the people who study it) that the quotient topology is wrong just because it's not always a topological group.
Feb 6, 2011 at 4:03 history edited Sergey Melikhov CC BY-SA 2.5
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Feb 6, 2011 at 1:36 comment added Jeremy Brazas The quotient topology on $\pi_1$ is finer (in many cases strictly finer) than the one Sergey is talking about by the universal property of quotient spaces.
Feb 6, 2011 at 0:14 comment added Sergey Melikhov Regarding the two topologies on $\pi_1$: I've looked at some examples a couple years ago, and unfortunately I can't remember anything now and I'm kind of short of time packing up for a flight tomorrow morning. Frankly speaking, I don't know any good reason to consider the quotient topology (other than it being easy to define). The "inverse limit" topology agrees with the group structure and its Hausdorff quotient is metrizable as long as $X$ is compact metrizable. Nothing like this holds for the quotient topology.
Feb 5, 2011 at 23:35 comment added Sergey Melikhov Sorry, I meant this only for pro-groups indexed by the positive integers. I should have said that I'm only really addressing the case where $X$ is a compact metrizable space. For such $X$ the fundamental pro-group is isomorphic to one indexed by the positive integers.
Feb 5, 2011 at 23:30 comment added Mike Shulman If you can say anything about why and when the inverse-limit topology is "often the same" as the quotient topology, though, then I think that together with your remarks above (which I have yet to digest) that would go a ways towards answering the original question.
Feb 5, 2011 at 23:03 comment added Mike Shulman Thanks, this is interesting, although not really the question I was asking since the topology is different. Is it really true that the inverse-limit topological group contains all the information of the fundamental pro-group if the latter is Mittag-Leffler? I'm pretty sure it's not true for the inverse-limit topological group of an arbitrary pro-group; there's a counterexample due to Higman & Stone which I summarized here.
Feb 5, 2011 at 15:55 history answered Sergey Melikhov CC BY-SA 2.5