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Feb 4, 2011 at 16:46 comment added Mohan There are two issues with your question. First of all, there is no natural map of $\det E\to\det G$ given your exact sequence. The only natural map is $\det E\otimes \mathcal{O}(D)\to\det G$. Secondly, if you had an exact sequence of determinants as you mention (possibly unnatural), it forces $\det E=\det G(-D)$. This need not be true in general. For example, let $M$ be an effective divisor and let $G=E(M)\oplus \mathcal{O}$ and the map being $E\to E(M)$. Then the double dual of $H$ is trivial and $\det E\neq \det G$.
Feb 4, 2011 at 15:52 vote accept ginevra86
Feb 4, 2011 at 15:36 answer added inkspot timeline score: 3
Feb 4, 2011 at 15:11 answer added Mike Skirvin timeline score: 1
Feb 4, 2011 at 13:50 answer added AFK timeline score: 0
Feb 4, 2011 at 13:44 history edited Francesco Polizzi CC BY-SA 2.5
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Feb 4, 2011 at 13:44 history edited ginevra86 CC BY-SA 2.5
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Feb 4, 2011 at 13:43 history edited Francesco Polizzi CC BY-SA 2.5
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Feb 4, 2011 at 13:40 history asked ginevra86 CC BY-SA 2.5