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Feb 5, 2011 at 15:32 comment added Mark Adams b) I'm not particularly familiar with semantics, but as I understand it semantics deals with values, or at least equivalences between values. The type system of a formal language would partition values in the semantics, forbidding equivalences between values of different type.
Feb 5, 2011 at 15:26 comment added Mark Adams a) In higher-order logic, variables can range over any values. In nth-order logic there is explicit distinction between different kinds of variable, which must range over (n-1)th order values or lower. So in a logic dealing with natural numbers, a 0th-order value would be a natural number, a 1st-order value would be a function over natural numbers, e.g "+", a 2nd-order value is a function that takes function arguments, e.g. "IsBijection", etc. Higher-order logic does not necessarily imply use of type theory/category theory.
Feb 5, 2011 at 15:10 comment added Mark Adams @Noldorin: I forgot to say in the answer to (4) that there are 1st-order logics that are not as powerful as natural number arithmetic and so the Incompleteness Theorem says nothing about these. But 1st-order logic with natural numbers is necessarily incomplete.
Jan 31, 2011 at 17:19 comment added Noldorin @Mark: Thanks for your response. This is a great answer; it answers many of my questions without being needlessly technical. Just a couple of little clarifications really: a) how exactly do nth-order logic and higher-order logic differ? (I always understood them to be the same thing.) does higher-order logic imply the use of type theory/category theory? b) How does a formal logic with a type theory relate to its semantics? They seem closely related, but I can't say much more.
Jan 30, 2011 at 20:26 history edited Mark Adams CC BY-SA 2.5
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Jan 29, 2011 at 10:18 history edited Mark Adams CC BY-SA 2.5
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Jan 29, 2011 at 8:49 history edited Mark Adams CC BY-SA 2.5
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Jan 29, 2011 at 8:43 history answered Mark Adams CC BY-SA 2.5