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Mar 1, 2018 at 1:05 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Feb 11, 2018 at 15:26 comment added Nishant Chandgotia I am probably missing something here. Forget about finitary, is it even possible to get a measurable map? Won't the push forward of any such map be (1-p, p)^\Z?
Jan 30, 2018 at 0:49 answer added uri gabor timeline score: 1
Jan 30, 2011 at 12:05 comment added Stephen Shea Question has been edited to clarify that $\psi$ should preserve $\mu$.
Jan 30, 2011 at 12:01 history edited Stephen Shea CC BY-SA 2.5
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Jan 25, 2011 at 23:35 comment added Stephen Shea Yes, I'd like $\psi$ to preserve $\mu$. Thank you Anthony.
Jan 25, 2011 at 22:32 comment added Anthony Quas You didn't say this, but I presume you also want that $\psi$ should preserve the measure $\mu$? (Otherwise your previous map $\phi$ will do the job).
Jan 25, 2011 at 20:59 history asked Stephen Shea CC BY-SA 2.5