I understand your question better now.
First, in your general context of filters the relations
$\leq_1$ and $\leq_2$ are not the same. To see this, let
$G=\{I\}$ be the trivial filter on a set $I$ with at
least two points, and let $\mu$ be any nonprincipal
ultrafilter on $I$. Since $G\subset \mu$, we see that
$G\leq_1\mu$$\mu\leq_1 G$ as witnessed by the identity function $i$ on $I$.
But for any function $f:I\to I$(Details: since $i[I]=I$, it must befollows that
$f^{-1}(j)\notin \mu$ for at least one $j$$i[G]$ is the filter with base $\{I\}$, since these are
disjointwhich is the same as $G$. So $i[G]=G$, which is a subset of $\mu$, and so $f[\mu]$ will contain $I-\{j\}$$\mu\leq_1 G$.) Meanwhile, meaning
$f[\mu]\neq G$I claim that $\mu\not\leq_2 G$. SoTo see this, observe that for any function $G\not\leq_2\mu$$f:I\to I$, we have $f[G]$ is the filter with base $\{f[I]\}$, and so $f[G]\neq\mu$ since $\mu$ is nonprincipal.
So the relations are
different.
Note also that if $\mu$ is an ultrafilter on $I$ and $F\leq_1 \mu$ via the function $f$ for a filter $F$, then $F$ is an ultrafilter. The reason is that if $Y\notin F$, then $f^{-1}Y\notin\mu$ and so $f^{-1}(I-Y)\in\mu$, which implies $f[f^{-1}(I-Y)]\in F$, which implies $I-Y\in F$, so $F$ is an ultrafilter.
Next, I claim that for ultrafilters, the relations are the same. Suppose that
Theorem. If $\mu\leq_1\nu$ and$\nu$ is an ultrafilter, then $\mu$$F\leq_1\nu\iff F\leq_2\nu$.
Proof. It suffices to prove the forward direction. Suppose $\nu$ is an ultrafilter ultrafilter on a set $I$$J$ and $\nu$$F$ is a filter on $J$$I$ and $F\leq_1\nu$ as witnessed by $f:J\to I$. So there is a function $f:I\to J$ for which$f[\nu]\subset F$. Consider any $\mu\subset f[\nu]$ in your sense$X\in F$. SinceIf $f[\nu]$ is a filter$f^{-1}X\in\nu$, then we get $X\supset f[f^{-1}X]\in f[\nu]$ and so $\mu$$X\in f[\nu]$. Otherwise, since $\nu$ is an ultrafilter ultrafilter, this implieswe have $\mu=f[\nu]$,$f^{-1}(I-X)\in\nu$ and so $\mu\leq_2\nu$ as desired $I-X\supset f[f^{-1}(I-X)]\in f[\nu]\subset F$, which would put disjoint sets in $F$, a contradiction. QED
MoreoverFinally, I claim that for ultrafilters, the relation $\leq_2$ is the same as the Rudin-Keisler order. The usual definition of this order is that if $F$ is a filter on $I$$J$ and $f:I\to J$$f:J\to I$ is any function, then one we may define a filter $G=f*F$ on $J$$I$ by $X\in G\leftrightarrow f^{-1}X\in F$. The Rudin-Keisler order is defined so that $G\leq_{RK} F$ if and only if there is $f$ for which $G=f*F$.
Suppose $F$ is a filter on $I$$J$ and $f:I\to J$$f:J\to I$. I claim generally that $f*F=f[F]$. This is because $Y\subset f^{-1}f[Y]$ for $Y\subset I$$Y\subset J$ shows that $f[F]\subset f*F$; and conversely $f[f^{-1}X]\subset X$ for $X\subset J$$X\subset I$ shows $f*F\subset f[F]$.
It follows that $\leq_2$ is the same as the Rudin-Keisler order.
And the $\leq_1$ order is simply a combination of the subfilter relation and the Rudin-Keisler order.