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Mar 18, 2011 at 16:26 comment added oxydo i've read the paper and there's a remark that states there's a way to prove it with the multiplier ideal. can someone tell me how it works? thank you
Jan 20, 2011 at 11:25 comment added J.C. Ottem I think the proof goes through without the smoothness assumption yes, although normality is of course essential.
Jan 20, 2011 at 10:57 comment added Gianni Bello Actually in the paper by ELMNP the variety is assumed to be smooth. However it seems to me that this is not used in the proof. Right?
Jan 20, 2011 at 9:44 vote accept Gianni Bello
Jan 20, 2011 at 1:42 history answered J.C. Ottem CC BY-SA 2.5