Timeline for Controlling the Second Eigenvalue of a Schrödinger Operator
Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5
3 events
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Jan 15, 2011 at 17:31 | comment | added | Rbega | @Denis Note I am most definitely NOT assuming $w=0$ on $\partial \Omega$ so one does not have that it is a Dirichlet eigenfunction. The not at all a priori obvious fact is that this doesn't hurt i.e. the spectrum can only go up. | |
Jan 15, 2011 at 9:16 | comment | added | Denis Serre | What do you mean ? If $L$ has a positive solution (I understand $Lw=0$ with $w>0$), then $\lambda_1(\Omega,L)=0$. If it is what you mean then Fischer-Colbrie and Schoen theorem is nothing but the Krein-Rutman theorem. | |
Jan 14, 2011 at 21:53 | history | asked | Rbega | CC BY-SA 2.5 |