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Apr 15, 2020 at 20:42 answer added Y_q timeline score: 2
Aug 27, 2019 at 2:03 review Suggested edits
Aug 27, 2019 at 7:49
S Dec 11, 2016 at 6:07 history suggested Bombyx mori CC BY-SA 3.0
fixed Latex error
Dec 11, 2016 at 5:39 review Suggested edits
S Dec 11, 2016 at 6:07
Apr 13, 2014 at 2:09 answer added Ashwath Rabindranath timeline score: 3
Nov 16, 2009 at 15:20 vote accept Enrique Acosta
Nov 13, 2009 at 11:33 answer added Jonathan Wise timeline score: 16
Nov 13, 2009 at 10:08 answer added Alex Collins timeline score: 12
Nov 12, 2009 at 22:41 answer added Georges Elencwajg timeline score: 26
Nov 12, 2009 at 21:51 vote accept Enrique Acosta
Nov 13, 2009 at 2:23
Nov 12, 2009 at 19:50 history edited Enrique Acosta CC BY-SA 2.5
edited title
Nov 12, 2009 at 19:48 history rollback Enrique Acosta
Rollback to Revision 3
Nov 12, 2009 at 19:48 comment added Kim Morrison It's best not to use dollar signs in the titles, since jsMath doesn't render the front page.
Nov 12, 2009 at 19:48 history edited Kim Morrison CC BY-SA 2.5
removing latex from title
Nov 12, 2009 at 19:47 history edited Enrique Acosta CC BY-SA 2.5
added 108 characters in body
Nov 12, 2009 at 19:38 history edited Enrique Acosta CC BY-SA 2.5
edited title
Nov 12, 2009 at 19:37 comment added Enrique Acosta Yes, I agree, I'l change the title
Nov 12, 2009 at 19:05 comment added 1-- Would it be useful to change the title of this question to 'Geometric meaning of the Euler sequence on $\mathbb{P}^n$?' This might be more meaningful to those browsing through the question titles, but without a copy of Hartshorne on hand....
Nov 12, 2009 at 18:18 comment added Ben Webster \mathcal works.
Nov 12, 2009 at 18:12 answer added Kevin H. Lin timeline score: 52
Nov 12, 2009 at 18:09 comment added Charles Siegel Ok, as I mentioned below, no mathscr, so the sequence is $0\to O\to O(1)^{n+1}\to T_{\mathbb{P}^n}\to 0$.
Nov 12, 2009 at 18:07 answer added Charles Siegel timeline score: 30
Nov 12, 2009 at 18:07 comment added Charles Siegel The sequence in question is that on $\mathbb{P}^n$, we have $0\to \mathscr{O}\to \mathscr{O}(1)^{n+1}\to T_{\mathbb{P}^n}\to 0$.
Nov 12, 2009 at 17:51 comment added Alon Amit I think you'll get a lot more people to think about that question if you mention what the exact sequences actually are.
Nov 12, 2009 at 17:45 history asked Enrique Acosta CC BY-SA 2.5