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Jan 13, 2011 at 22:16 answer added Pace Nielsen timeline score: 0
Jan 13, 2011 at 16:33 comment added Todd Trimble Aleks, since you are obviously speculating here, I might point you to ncatlab.org/johnbaez/show/Doctrines+of+Algebraic+Geometry
Jan 13, 2011 at 15:48 comment added Mark Grant Then $1/0$ and $0/0$ are the same equivalence class.
Jan 13, 2011 at 15:25 comment added Aleks Kissinger Yes, in the case of the field of fractions for an integral domain, I mean equiv. classes over the relation "user 9072" alludes to below. In the case where we consider 0 denominators, it seems to become a bit more delicate.
Jan 13, 2011 at 14:38 history edited Aleks Kissinger CC BY-SA 2.5
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Jan 13, 2011 at 13:59 answer added user9072 timeline score: 2
Jan 13, 2011 at 13:36 comment added Mark Grant By "formal pairs" do you mean equivalence classes under the usual relation?
Jan 13, 2011 at 13:21 history asked Aleks Kissinger CC BY-SA 2.5