Timeline for Is it possible to show that an infinite set has a countable (infinite) subset, without using the Axiom of Choice?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Nov 25, 2016 at 22:47 | history | edited | Stefan Geschke | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 10 characters in body
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| Jan 7, 2011 at 18:16 | comment | added | Andrés E. Caicedo | @Peter: Yes, the set $A$ in the basic Fraenkel model is amorphous, see A. Levy, "The independence of various definitions of finiteness", Fund. Math. 46 (1958), 1–13. But you can also see this directly in the original Cohen model for not-AC. | |
| Jan 7, 2011 at 17:46 | comment | added | Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine | How do you show that nice consistency result? I used to know, but it’s escaping me now — something with Frankel-Mostowski permutation models, is it? | |
| Jan 7, 2011 at 17:38 | vote | accept | tibet | ||
| Jan 7, 2011 at 17:37 | vote | accept | tibet | ||
| Jan 7, 2011 at 17:37 | |||||
| Jan 7, 2011 at 17:31 | history | answered | Stefan Geschke | CC BY-SA 2.5 |