Timeline for Is it possible to show that an infinite set has a countable (infinite) subset, without using the Axiom of Choice?
Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Aug 14, 2015 at 5:45 | comment | added | msh210 | Same question on Math SE: math.stackexchange.com/q/1396676 | |
| Jan 7, 2011 at 18:01 | comment | added | Andrés E. Caicedo | You may also be interested in this question: mathoverflow.net/questions/51171/splitting-infinite-sets | |
| Jan 7, 2011 at 17:38 | vote | accept | tibet | ||
| S Jan 7, 2011 at 17:37 | vote | accept | tibet | ||
| Jan 7, 2011 at 17:38 | |||||
| Jan 7, 2011 at 17:37 | vote | accept | tibet | ||
| S Jan 7, 2011 at 17:37 | |||||
| Jan 7, 2011 at 17:31 | answer | added | Chris Eagle | timeline score: 9 | |
| Jan 7, 2011 at 17:31 | answer | added | Stefan Geschke | timeline score: 20 | |
| Jan 7, 2011 at 17:21 | history | asked | tibet | CC BY-SA 2.5 |