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S Oct 25, 2020 at 0:49 history suggested CommunityBot
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S Oct 25, 2020 at 0:49
May 24, 2013 at 16:09 answer added Sean Lawton timeline score: 5
Jan 11, 2013 at 11:17 answer added Rami timeline score: -3
Jan 10, 2013 at 22:30 comment added Rami I think that the proof the you gave for the f.d. case works also for compact operators. But you probably know that.
Sep 4, 2011 at 8:53 comment added jjcale @Denis: $d_{m}\leq\pi$, since every unitary Matrix U can be written as $U=e^{iL}$, where L is self adjoint and $\|L\|\leq\pi$
Jan 8, 2011 at 17:06 comment added Kate Juschenko @Martin: $C_k(t)$ should commute for each t. It seems that if norms of $A_k$ and $B_k$ are bounded then the statement is true, just taking homotopy of $A_k$ to $0$ and then $0$ to $B_k$, i.e $C_k(t)=(1-2t) A_k$ if $t\in [0,1/2]$ and $C_k(t)=(2t-1)B_k$ if $t\in[1/2,1]$ – Kate Juschenko 2 mins ago
Jan 8, 2011 at 16:47 comment added Martin Argerami I assume I'm missing something, but why wouldn't $C_k(t)=tA_k+(1-t)B_k$ work?
Jan 7, 2011 at 7:28 comment added Denis Serre @Igor: But then the length of the path can be as large as the diameter $d_m$ of $SU_m$, $m$ the dimension of $H$. If the answer to the question is yes, we must have $d_m\le M(n)$, and therefore $\sup_md(m)<\infty$. Is this true ?
Jan 6, 2011 at 23:46 comment added Igor Rivin @Andrey: I assume that in finite dimension you just take the orthonormal frame of eigenvectors of all $A$s and connect them by a geodesic (in the orthogonal/unitary group) to the orthogonal frame of eigenvectors of the $B$s. I did not do the computation, I confess, but it seems reasonably clear that the conditions are satisfied. This seems less obvious in the infinite dimensional case.
Jan 6, 2011 at 22:46 comment added Andrey Rekalo Is this known when $H$ is finite dimensional?
Jan 6, 2011 at 22:43 history edited fedja CC BY-SA 2.5
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Jan 6, 2011 at 22:43 comment added fedja @ Kate: For $n=1$, you can just go straight: $C(t)=(1-t)A+tB$. A linear combination of self-adjoint operators is self adjoint and everything commutes with itself. @Survit Yes, that's one more way to put it and the difficulty is exactly as you said. @Ben I'll fix it now changing $C$ to $M$.
Jan 6, 2011 at 22:40 comment added Suvrit @Kate: isn't $C1 = t*B1 + (1-t)*A1$ ok in this case? what am I missing?
Jan 6, 2011 at 22:11 comment added Kate Juschenko @fedja: is your question clear for n=1? if A1 and B1 are orthogonal projections of different ranks, why do we have C1? maybe you mean $||A_k-B_k||<\epsilon<1$?
Jan 6, 2011 at 21:56 comment added Suvrit In other words, $C_k(t)$ for $t \in [0,1]$ is a homotopy between $A_k$ and $B_k$ such that it has "bounded variation", right? I guess the difficulty stems from the $C_k$'s having to commute too?
Jan 6, 2011 at 21:56 comment added Ben Webster That was unfortunate overloading of C.
Jan 6, 2011 at 21:39 history asked fedja CC BY-SA 2.5