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Timeline for Change of time or change of measure

Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5

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Jan 8, 2011 at 14:58 vote accept SBF
Jan 6, 2011 at 8:07 comment added SBF Yes, it's obvious, you're right, thank you.
Jan 5, 2011 at 11:13 comment added Alekk let $[Y]_t$ denotes the quadratic variation of the process $Y$ between $0$ and $t$. Then the event $A=\{ \omega : [\omega]_T = a \sigma^2 T\}$ satisfies $\mathbb{Q}_Y(A)=1$ while $\mathbb{Q}_X(A)=0$.
Jan 5, 2011 at 9:46 comment added SBF Why is it obvious?
Jan 4, 2011 at 16:20 comment added Alekk @Tim van Beek: Y is solution of $dY = \sqrt{a} \sigma dW_t$, not $dY = \sqrt{a} \sigma dY$. Because the quadratic variation of Y on [0;T] is almost surely equal to $a \sigma^2$, and the quadratic variation of X is almost surely equal to $\sigma^2$, this is obvious that the measure are mutually singular.
Jan 4, 2011 at 13:02 comment added SBF Yes, it is extremely strange result that $$ \frac{dQ_Y}{dQ_X}=0 $$ if $|a|\neq 1$. You can mention that if we take 1a instead of a we should have that $$ \frac{dQ_Y}{dQ_X} =1/\frac{dQ_X}{dQ_Y} = \infty $$ - under the condition that your result is true of course.
Jan 4, 2011 at 12:16 comment added Tim van Beek The measures of $dX_t = \sigma dW_t$ and $dY_t = \sqrt\alpha \sigma dY_t$ for nonzero constants $\alpha$ and $\sigma$ are absolutely continuous according to the Girsanov theorem...
Jan 4, 2011 at 11:23 history answered Alekk CC BY-SA 2.5