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Jun 15, 2020 at 7:27 history edited CommunityBot
Commonmark migration
Feb 1, 2012 at 9:37 comment added Tom Copeland If you consider invertible functions as in oeis.org/A145271, then the autonomous diff. eqn. in that entry applies to characterize f.
Dec 27, 2010 at 11:39 answer added Unknown timeline score: 0
Dec 27, 2010 at 1:23 comment added Gerald Edgar Maybe an algebraist thinks $x$ is an unknown to be solved for, while an analyst thinks $x$ is the independent variable of a function.
Dec 26, 2010 at 18:03 history edited Unknown CC BY-SA 2.5
edited link to wikipedia
Dec 26, 2010 at 17:42 comment added Unknown Thanks. I reworked it exactly as you explained(even with the same variable t) before commenting but wondered why you chose to do so with the $x$'s and $f$'s in that cognitively dissonant way.
Dec 26, 2010 at 15:52 history edited Andrey Rekalo CC BY-SA 2.5
Typo in the title
Dec 26, 2010 at 15:39 answer added Gerry Myerson timeline score: 1
Dec 26, 2010 at 15:17 comment added Felipe Voloch $f(t)$, say, is your given function and I wrote a (first-order, linear, homogeneous) differential equation with unknown $x(t)$, which has your $f$ as a solution.
Dec 26, 2010 at 15:05 comment added Unknown @Felipe. I am confused with your notation.
Dec 26, 2010 at 14:53 comment added Felipe Voloch $x=f$ is the unique solution to $x'=(f'/f)x, x(0)=f(0)$ if $f(0)\ne 0$. This is of course stupid, but it shows shows that you need to make your question a bit more precise.
Dec 26, 2010 at 14:07 comment added Unknown Note that my question here is not restricted to algebraic differential equations.
Dec 26, 2010 at 14:04 history edited Unknown CC BY-SA 2.5
deleted 76 characters in body
Dec 26, 2010 at 14:02 comment added J. M. isn't a mathematician If the Barnes function has a nice DE, I'd sure love to see it: mathworld.wolfram.com/BarnesG-Function.html
Dec 26, 2010 at 14:01 comment added Gjergji Zaimi Duplicate? mathoverflow.net/questions/21314/…
Dec 26, 2010 at 13:38 history asked Unknown CC BY-SA 2.5