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Oct 13, 2016 at 16:56 answer added HenrikRüping timeline score: 3
Sep 21, 2012 at 12:26 answer added Justin Young timeline score: 5
Dec 17, 2010 at 3:01 vote accept Akhil Mathew
Dec 17, 2010 at 2:35 comment added Akhil Mathew Ah. OK, this makes sense.
Dec 17, 2010 at 1:56 answer added Jacob Lurie timeline score: 27
Dec 17, 2010 at 1:40 comment added Tom Goodwillie Never mind wikipedia. Look, you can consider natural cohomology operations in the broader sense of natural maps of (based) sets, and this is the (or anyway a) traditional use of the term. And it's a simple fact that a stable cohomology operation is automatically a homomorphism.
Dec 17, 2010 at 1:38 history edited Tom Goodwillie CC BY-SA 2.5
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Dec 17, 2010 at 0:53 comment added Sean Tilson according to wikipedia it is a natural transformation of functors into abelian groups. At every object the "value" of the natural transformation is a map of abelian groups. So according to wikipedia...
Dec 17, 2010 at 0:42 comment added Akhil Mathew Not according to Wikipedia.
Dec 17, 2010 at 0:32 comment added Sean Tilson Shouldn't they be homomorphisms of abelian groups? always? no matter what?
Dec 17, 2010 at 0:28 history edited Akhil Mathew CC BY-SA 2.5
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Dec 17, 2010 at 0:27 comment added Akhil Mathew @Sean: thanks, fixed. I don't believe cohomology operations are required to be linear in general.
Dec 17, 2010 at 0:23 comment added Sean Tilson This is a cool question by the way. Also, your $C_1(X)$ is a (graded) commutative DGA right?
Dec 17, 2010 at 0:19 comment added Sean Tilson The power maps are not homomorphisms of abelian groups rationally. The $p$th power map is linear mod $p$ only.
Dec 17, 2010 at 0:17 answer added algori timeline score: 15
Dec 16, 2010 at 23:24 history asked Akhil Mathew CC BY-SA 2.5