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Oct 9, 2022 at 10:00 comment added Somnium So, if you fix enumeration for A, how you get enumeration for B? I am trying to construct explicit example.
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Dec 10, 2010 at 18:18 history edited Pietro Majer CC BY-SA 2.5
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Dec 10, 2010 at 18:10 comment added Pietro Majer yes, it was explicit in the lines above. Sorry, I though it was clear enough.
Dec 10, 2010 at 14:04 comment added Willie Wong Ah, so you are implicitly using an enumeration of the two sets. Okay.
Dec 10, 2010 at 14:03 comment added Pietro Majer that's no problem, "already settled" just means the first (approximatively) $n/2$ of $A$ plus their images, and the first $n/2$ of $B$ plus their pre-images.
Dec 10, 2010 at 13:41 comment added Willie Wong @Pietro: I don't understand how you can run your procedure described as is in that other question here. You say: "inductively add only odd degree polynomials $p_n$, that vanish on the (finitely many) already settled points, and do not destroy the invertibility on $\mathbb{R}$, but if you start with $p_1(x) = qx$ for some rational $q$, then the "already settled points" is already in fact all the points that you want...
Dec 10, 2010 at 13:15 history answered Pietro Majer CC BY-SA 2.5