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Dec 10, 2010 at 0:56 history edited M.G. CC BY-SA 2.5
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Dec 9, 2010 at 22:17 comment added M.G. @all: Please consider Henry Wilton´s plea! Thanks! :-)
Dec 9, 2010 at 21:43 comment added Nick Salter @ Max Muller: In the spirit of accuracy (but without wanting to move towards opening up any cans of worms) I believe it is the case that Furstenburg's is not a repackaging of analytic ideas, but rather Euclid's original argument.
Dec 9, 2010 at 21:18 comment added M.G. Well, ok, I was not aware of all these discussions (I have just found some more, lol). I agree though that its mathematical value is doubtful as it seems to be just a reformulation of Euclid´s proof, yet I find it amusing that such reformulation is possible... No more discussion about it. Period. :-)
Dec 9, 2010 at 19:44 comment added Robin Chapman And others think it's the usual proof in disguise :-)
Dec 9, 2010 at 19:35 comment added Max Lonysa Muller @ ex falso quodlibet: I think I know what Henry Wilton is talking about. On at least one question on MO I saw multiple users talking about Furstenberg's proof. Some view it as a very original idea, as it claims to prove the infitude of the primes by means of topological methods. Others think that it isn't exactly a topological proof. They think it's more of a analytical proof, which incorporates ideas from calculus and analysis, aritmetic progressions in particular.
Dec 9, 2010 at 19:27 comment added John Stillwell See mathoverflow.net/questions/42512/…
Dec 9, 2010 at 19:16 comment added HJRW A plea in advance - can we not have this discussion again?
Dec 9, 2010 at 19:07 history answered M.G. CC BY-SA 2.5