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Dec 9, 2010 at 22:41 comment added David MJC In other words, the omega's in the second calculation are minus the omega's in the first. Hence the sign difference in the transition formulae.
Dec 9, 2010 at 22:36 comment added Deane Yang I encourage you to read the second paragraph of my answer (which I just added).
Dec 9, 2010 at 22:31 vote accept Rex
Dec 9, 2010 at 22:31
Dec 9, 2010 at 22:29 comment added Rex If both formulas are correct, then we would have the following: Start with a vector bundle $E\to X$. Then using trivialisations, we get connection forms $\omega^U$ which satisfy $\omega^V=g\omega^Ug^{-1}-dgg^{-1}$. Then $-\omega^U$ satisfy $\omega^V=g\omega^Ug^{-1}+dgg^{-1}$ which is exactly what is needed to define a connection on the principal $GL_n$ bundle. Conversely, we can go backwards also. This seems to suggest that for a principle bundle we should define curvature as $d\omega-\omega\wedge\omega$, as opposed to $d\omega+\omega\wedge\omega$ in the case of a vector bundle.
Dec 9, 2010 at 22:02 history edited Deane Yang CC BY-SA 2.5
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Dec 9, 2010 at 21:58 comment added Deane Yang Both formulas appear correct to me.
Dec 9, 2010 at 21:51 comment added Rex @t3suji: I am not sure I understand your question, but I think the answer is no. I am getting $\-\omega^U$.
Dec 9, 2010 at 21:36 comment added Rex @Deane Yang : The first calculation is correct. It's the second one I am worried about, the one which involves the principal bundle. Are you saying that the second one is fine too?
Dec 9, 2010 at 21:27 comment added Deane Yang t3suji (and anyone else), you're more than welcome to expand on my answer or even rewrite it differently as a separate answer. I'm being a little coy, because I prefer students to struggle and figure these things out on their own. But if someone else wants to explain what's going on, they're welcome to do so.
Dec 9, 2010 at 21:25 comment added Deane Yang Your calculation is correct. Please focus on an actual section of $E$ and expand it using two different frames. You'll see why everything is actually OK.
Dec 9, 2010 at 20:08 comment added t3suji Let me try to extend Deane Yang's answer (hope it is OK): Suppose you are looking at the same connection and the same trivialization in these two different ways. Do you get the same form $\omega^U$?
Dec 9, 2010 at 19:44 comment added Rex My problem is on the one hand I get $\omega^V=g\omega^Ug^{-1}-dgg^{-1}$ and on the other hand I get $\omega^V=g\omega^Ug^{-1}+dgg^{-1}$. I have checked the calculation several times and so I think I am goofing up with some definition??
Dec 9, 2010 at 19:06 history answered Deane Yang CC BY-SA 2.5