Timeline for How to calculate Tor(R/I, R/J) ??
Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5
11 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
---|---|---|---|---|---|
Apr 28, 2012 at 20:55 | answer | added | Hans Schoutens | timeline score: 8 | |
Dec 9, 2010 at 3:10 | comment | added | Kripton | yes, I've already proved the first part, but now I can't see the second. Anyway thank you for your comment. | |
Dec 9, 2010 at 3:01 | comment | added | Steve D | I answered this a few days ago here: answers.yahoo.com/question/… | |
Dec 9, 2010 at 2:33 | comment | added | Kripton | Karl, thank you for the answer. It with the one below allowed me to have the solution. I really apreciate that. | |
Dec 9, 2010 at 2:16 | vote | accept | Kripton | ||
Dec 9, 2010 at 2:13 | vote | accept | Kripton | ||
Dec 9, 2010 at 2:16 | |||||
Dec 9, 2010 at 0:32 | answer | added | Steven Landsburg | timeline score: 4 | |
Dec 9, 2010 at 0:31 | history | edited | Karl Schwede | CC BY-SA 2.5 |
Fixed latex typo
|
Dec 9, 2010 at 0:06 | comment | added | Kripton | I mean Tor_1 over the ring R. That is exactly what I did, but I get Tor(R/I x R/J) = Ker(I x R/I ----> A x A/J), where x is the tensor product, but then I don't know how to prove the equality. | |
Dec 8, 2010 at 23:58 | comment | added | Charles Rezk | Your question is ambiguous: which Tor group do you mean? In any case, it really does sound like homework to me. Here's a hint: think about what happens if you apply Tor to an exact sequence like $0\to I\to R\to R/I\to 0$. | |
Dec 8, 2010 at 23:48 | history | asked | Kripton | CC BY-SA 2.5 |