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Dec 7, 2010 at 14:12 vote accept Steve
Dec 6, 2010 at 22:13 answer added Konrad Waldorf timeline score: 5
Dec 6, 2010 at 22:05 comment added Konrad Waldorf ... and "line bundle" should probably be "hermitian line bundle".
Dec 6, 2010 at 22:01 comment added Konrad Waldorf I think the statements in the question are correct given that $H^2(G,\mathbb{Z})$ is supposed to denoted group cohomology, while $H^2(X,\mathbb{Z})$ denotes ordinary cohomology. I'd better replace $H^2(G,\mathbb{Z})$ right away by $H^2(BG,\mathbb{Z})$.
Dec 6, 2010 at 21:59 answer added Mariano Suárez-Álvarez timeline score: 7
Dec 6, 2010 at 21:58 answer added Oscar Randal-Williams timeline score: 15
Dec 6, 2010 at 21:46 comment added Somnath Basu I guess you meant line bundles on $G$ and not $BG$. And assuming that the action of $G$ on $\mathbb{Z}$ is trivial, $H^2(G;\mathbb{Z})$ classifies central extensions of $G$ by $\mathbb{Z}$. And finally, if your $G$ is a simply connected Lie group then $H^2(G;\mathbb{Z})=0$.
Dec 6, 2010 at 21:24 history asked Steve CC BY-SA 2.5