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Can the PythogreanPythagorean theorem be proved using imaginary numbers? The proof must avoid circular reasoning, of course.
I asked essentially the same question at MSE, but did not receive a definitive answer, so I thought I would ask here.
Can the Pythogrean theorem be proved using imaginary numbers? The proof must avoid circular reasoning, of course.
Can the Pythagorean theorem be proved using imaginary numbers? The proof must avoid circular reasoning, of course.