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Dec 10 at 19:20 comment added Pedro Lauridsen Ribeiro What about $2p$-vector fields with $p>1$ then?
Dec 10 at 17:45 comment added mlainz This follows from $[X\wedge Y,Z] = X\wedge [Y,Z] \pm [X,Z]\wedge Y $ (see [1])
Dec 10 at 17:42 comment added mlainz This does not generalize to $p$-vector fields with $p>2$. One can compute that if $X = X_1 \wedge X_2 \wedge X_3$ then $[X,X] = 0$ always.
Dec 9 at 19:07 comment added Pedro Lauridsen Ribeiro This MO question might be of interest: mathoverflow.net/q/155989/11211 - In that regard, it can be shown that a 2-vector field $X=X_1\wedge X_2$ defines an integrable 2-dimensional distribution iff its Schouten-Nijenhuis bracket with itself vanishes everywhere. This also provides a characterization of when a 2-vector field is a Poisson tensor, check e.g. P. W. Michor, Remarks on the Schouten-Nijenhuis bracket, Rend. Circ. Mat. Palermo Suppl. 16 (1987), pp. 207-215, dml.cz/dmlcz/701423 . I don't know of a similar geometric interpretation of $p$-vector fields for $p>2$.
S Dec 9 at 16:53 history edited R.P. CC BY-SA 4.0
corrected spelling in title
S Dec 9 at 16:53 history suggested J. W. Tanner CC BY-SA 4.0
corrected spelling in title
Dec 9 at 16:46 review Suggested edits
S Dec 9 at 16:53
Dec 9 at 16:29 history asked mlainz CC BY-SA 4.0