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yesterday vote accept en-drix
Dec 8 at 21:12 comment added darij grinberg Probably something with derivations ("all derivations vanish") instead of automorphisms ("all automorphisms fix"). There has been a recent (very technical) work by Brantner and Waldron on inseparable Galois theory: people.maths.ox.ac.uk/brantner/…
Dec 8 at 20:37 answer added LSpice timeline score: 3
Dec 8 at 12:17 comment added Joe Silverman Your first statement about the separable case isn't quite accurate, e.g., $f(x)=(x^2-2)(x^2-3)$ and $F=\mathbb Q$. But you probably meant to insist that $f(x)$ be irreducible in $F[x]$.
Dec 8 at 8:59 history asked en-drix CC BY-SA 4.0