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S Dec 7 at 18:59 history suggested Arnav Das CC BY-SA 4.0
Corrected reference, rephrased "homotopy lift"
Dec 7 at 13:05 review Suggested edits
S Dec 7 at 18:59
Dec 6 at 15:15 comment added Arnav Das A quicker question: what makes the dashed morphism $G$-equivariant (and thereby a morphism of principal $G$-bundles)?
Dec 5 at 20:59 comment added Arnav Das Thank you for the edit. Upon a second read, I don't believe you are using the choice of homotopy $h: B\phi \circ \tau_H \to \tau_G$ in your argument (or have explicated the existence of one being a condition for any syllogism). Where does it come in? I think it's relevant to ask, e.g. what's to stop us from applying the $(-)\times_H G$ functor on arbitrary $H$-bundles and then running the rest of your argument? My understanding was that a given homotopy $h$ leads to a (unique?) isomorphism $\theta_h : Q \times_H G \to P$. Is this what you show? Could you make this point explicit?
Dec 4 at 13:22 comment added Baylee Schutte I don't know if you can modify the proof of the reverse implication to remove the admissibility assumption. For now, I've edited the last paragraph of my answer to reflect this.
Dec 4 at 13:18 history edited Baylee Schutte CC BY-SA 4.0
added 32 characters in body
S Dec 4 at 12:55 review First answers
Dec 4 at 13:42
S Dec 4 at 12:55 history edited Baylee Schutte CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 4 at 12:49 comment added Arnav Das Thank you. In Mitchell's notes, he does not seem to have considered arbitrary homomorphisms $\phi : H \to G$, only subgroup inclusions (upon a cursory look, a remark is also made about admissability of the subgroup on p. 21). Have you a reference for a proof of the reverse implication where $\phi$ is arbitrary (or does the same argument therein hold with slight modifications)?
S Dec 4 at 12:33 review First answers
Dec 4 at 12:40
S Dec 4 at 12:33 history answered Baylee Schutte CC BY-SA 4.0