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Nov 26 at 10:24 comment added Elliot Glazer It does not. Even the Hahn-Banach theorem does not imply that $\omega$ (or any set) admits a non-principal ultrafilter. See Pincus and Solovay's Definability of Measures and Ultrafilters. I wouldn't be surprised if their model of HB with no np ultrafilters in fact has that all diffuse measures have range $[0,1].$
Nov 26 at 9:34 comment added Emil Jeřábek I do not know that, but it's plausible that it doesn't.
Nov 26 at 9:07 comment added aduh @EmilJeřábek Indeed, thanks for the correction. But does PM$_\omega$ imply that there exists a non-principal ultrafilter on $\omega$? Admittedly, I've been assuming it doesn't, although I don't have a reference for this off the top of my head.
Nov 26 at 7:39 comment added Emil Jeřábek The mere existence of a nonprincipal ultrafilter, even specifically on $\omega$ (as you apparently mean from the context), is a quite weak principle, and certainly does not imply the Hahn-Banach theorem. You are probably confusing it with the Ultrafiler Lemma, which states that every proper filter on every set extends to an ultrafilter.
Nov 26 at 0:21 comment added aduh @ElliotGlazer No, not to me. Good point!
Nov 25 at 23:59 comment added Elliot Glazer Is it even clear that Hahn-Banach implies there is a diffuse measure whose range is not $[0,1]$?
Nov 25 at 22:27 history asked aduh CC BY-SA 4.0