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Nov 26 at 2:29 comment added Martin Brandenburg Can people here please stop adding their answers in the comment section and instead post them as answers? Thanks.
Nov 22 at 13:45 answer added Benjamin Steinberg timeline score: 5
Nov 20 at 13:31 answer added tkf timeline score: 14
Nov 20 at 2:00 answer added Jesse Elliott timeline score: 5
Nov 20 at 0:00 comment added Andres Mejia do proofs from motivic homotopy theory count?
Nov 19 at 20:45 answer added R. van Dobben de Bruyn timeline score: 16
Nov 19 at 20:12 comment added R. van Dobben de Bruyn Ah I see. If you really insist on non-associative algebras, you are probably right that there is no algebraic proof. The associative case is apparently due to Frobenius, for which there are many proofs, including many algebraic ones.
Nov 19 at 18:53 comment added jjcale Is there a purely algebraic definition for "totally real number field" ?
Nov 19 at 9:33 answer added Adam Epstein timeline score: 4
Nov 19 at 8:57 answer added Tobias Fritz timeline score: 19
Nov 19 at 7:55 answer added Henri Cohen timeline score: 7
Nov 19 at 7:52 answer added Piotr Achinger timeline score: 39
Nov 19 at 7:34 comment added Carl-Fredrik Nyberg Brodda A former example: every subgroup of a surface group is a surface group (if finite index) or free (if infinite index). This was well-known by topological means for a long time (certainly Klein and Fricke knew it) but only given an algebraic proof in the 1970s.
Nov 19 at 7:15 history edited no upstairs
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Nov 19 at 1:37 history became hot network question
Nov 18 at 23:29 comment added Sam Hopkins @R.vanDobbendeBruyn see mathoverflow.net/questions/401542 where some related results are discussed. But if there really are purely algebraic proofs of these theorems of Hopf and Kervaire/Milnor, I would be quite interested to know that (and the Wikipedia page could be updated).
Nov 18 at 21:49 comment added Sam Hopkins @R.vanDobbendeBruyn but the theorems are about not necessarily associative algebras, right? Am I misunderstanding your comment?
Nov 18 at 20:59 comment added R. van Dobben de Bruyn I'm going to politely disagree with the example in the post: at least for associative division algebras, their classification is essentially the computation that $\operatorname{Br}(\mathbf R) \cong \mathbf Z/2\mathbf Z$, which is easy to prove using Galois cohomology: $H^2(\mathbf R,\mathbf C^\times) \cong \hat H{}^0(\mathbf R,\mathbf C^\times) = \mathbf R^\times/N(\mathbf C^\times)$. I consider this an algebraic proof. That said, I have no idea if Galois cohomology tells you anything about non-associative algebras.
Nov 18 at 20:53 comment added Benjamin Steinberg @WillBrian, my point is that if $\beta \mathbb N$ has idempotents so does every other compact right topological semigroup because it is free on one generator in this category
Nov 18 at 20:42 comment added Will Brian @BenjaminSteinberg: Yes, I agree. I expect that any proof of this theorem needs to make use of the topology on $\beta \mathbb N$, either openly or sneakily. That's what makes it a good example of what the OP is asking for (unless it's dismissed as not "real algebra" and more set theory).
Nov 18 at 20:06 comment added Benjamin Steinberg @WillBrian, this seems equivalent to the statement that every compact right topological semigroup has an idempotent so I'm not sure how a nontopological proof can be expected
Nov 18 at 19:31 comment added Will Brian There is an important semigroup operation $+$ defined on the set of ultrafilters on $\mathbb N$. It is an important and nontrivial theorem that there are non-principal ultrafilters $u$ for which $u+u = u$. The statement of this theorem, and all of the relevant definitions, can be expressed without any reference to any topology on the set of ultrafilters. But every proof of the theorem that I know involves topology in a nontrivial way. (I'm putting this as a comment, rather than an answer, because I imagine it might stretch too far what you mean by an "algebraic theorem.")
Nov 18 at 19:23 comment added Benjamin Steinberg Yes, it should say are free
Nov 18 at 19:17 history made wiki Post Made Community Wiki by Stefan Kohl
Nov 18 at 18:43 comment added Sam Hopkins @BenjaminSteinberg are you missing some words in your second comment? The proofs that "torsion-free groups of cohomological dimension 1" what?
Nov 18 at 18:39 comment added Benjamin Steinberg I believe that the proofs that torsion-free groups of cohomological dimension 1 are at least somewhat topological or geometric, although I’m not sure where you put the dividing line between algebra and combinatorial topology.
Nov 18 at 18:36 comment added Benjamin Steinberg I don’t believe there are any purely algebraic proofs of Gromov’s theorem that groups of polynomial growth have a nilpotent subgroup of finite index.
Nov 18 at 18:28 comment added J. W. Tanner Indeed, it has been remarked that the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra is neither fundamental nor a theorem of algebra
Nov 18 at 18:25 history edited Sam Hopkins CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 18 at 18:05 answer added Peter Mueller timeline score: 32
Nov 18 at 18:01 answer added J. W. Tanner timeline score: 7
Nov 18 at 17:52 comment added Peter Mueller @J.W.Tanner There are algebraic proofs which only use two facts from analysis: Real polynomials of odd degree have a real root, and each complex number has a complex square root. At some point an algebraic proof has to use the definition or easy properties of real or complex numbers.
Nov 18 at 17:48 comment added J. W. Tanner Fundamental theorem of algebra?
Nov 18 at 17:36 history asked Sam Hopkins CC BY-SA 4.0