My question is: WhenWhen does Mordell's Equationequation
$$y^2 = x^3 + K$$$$Y^2 = X^3 + K$$
have only FINITELYfinitely many solutions over the field of rational numbers, if we allow $K$ itself to be a rational number?
I've seen a "criterion" (i.e. a set of sufficient conditions) related to the class number of the (real/imaginary) quadratic field $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{K})$, but it is limited only to $K$ being either 1$1$ or 2$2$ modulo 4$4$.
[The(The actual "criterion" (as stated in the Japanese[?] paper that I allude to) is:
Mordell's equation $y^2 = x^3 + K$$Y^2 = X^3 + K$ has finitely many solutions in $\mathbb{Q}$ if
(1) $-K$ is not of the form $3t^2 + 1$ or $3t^2 - 1$; ANDand
(2) $K \equiv 1 (mod 4)$$K \equiv 1 \pmod 4$ or $K \equiv 2 (mod 4)$$K \equiv 2 \pmod 4$; ANDand
(3) $3$ does not divide the class number of the (real/imaginary) quadratic field $Q(\sqrt{K})$.])
Edit: PleasePlease refer to this hyperlink for more information as to the context of the previous "criterion". TheseThese have since been refuted by Kevin Buzzard Kevin Buzzard (@Kevin - thank YOU!).
Let
$$Y = W + Z$$
and
and $$X = WZ$$
where where $W$ and $Z$ are defined as:
$$W = I(p^k) = \frac{\sigma_{1}(p^k)}{p^k}$$
$$Z = I(m^2) = \frac{\sigma_{1}(m^2)}{m^2}$$
Let $$N = {p^k}{m^2}$$ be a perfect number. (At this point, we don't have to distinguish between even or odd $N$ because the Euclid-Euler model for perfect numbers fits both cases. For more details regarding thisThat is, please refer to thisthe linkEulerian form for an odd perfect number and the Euclidean form for an even perfect number have very similar multiplicative forms.)
We "know" that the exponent $k$ allows us to distinguish between even and odd $N$ in the sense that:We "know" that the exponent $k$ allows us to distinguish between even and odd $N$ in the sense that:
(1) If $k$ = 1, then $N$ is even.
(2) If $k$ > 1, then $N$ is odd. hyperlink
Perhaps the important feature that should be used to distinguish between even perfect numbers $M=2^{q-1}(2^q - 1)$ and odd perfect numbers $N=p^k m^2$ (where $2^q - 1$ and $p$ are the Mersenne and special primes, respectively) is the index of a perfect number: (1) If $k$ = 1, then $N$ is even.
$\gcd(2^{q-1},\sigma(2^{q-1}))=1$ (2) If $k$ > 1, then $N$ $\gcd(m^2,\sigma(m^2))>1$ There is odda known formula for computing $\gcd(m^2,\sigma(m^2))$. (AgainFor example, refer to theif link for more details. There$k=1$, then it is also a related MathOverflow postequal to here$2m^2 - \sigma(m^2)$.)
Of course, the "juicy" implication is that: If you will be able to find a condition (e.g. equation, inequality, etc.) relating $k$ to $K$ and you are also able to FURTHERfurther show that the number of solutions to the corresponding Mordell equation $Y^2 = X^3 + K$ is finite FOR ALL SUCH for all such $K$, then it would follow that there are only finitely many perfect numbers (odd ANDand even).
Disclaimer: This is a "naive" approach based on my current understanding of elliptic curve theory. I am well-aware, of course, that the rationals are dense over the real numbers. [Edit(Edit: InIn addition, the abundancy indices and the abundancy outlaws are both dense over the rationals.] Which) Which is why I was kindakind of surprised that there is NOno need to assume ("strict") rationality (i.e. $K \in \mathbb{Q}$ but not in $\mathbb{Z}$$K \in \mathbb{Q} \setminus \mathbb{Z}$) for $K$ when checking for finiteness of solutions to Mordell's equation.