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Oct 30 at 16:02 comment added Emil Jeřábek I don't know. It sounds like a basic thing that was probably observed before, but to be honest, I'm not well read in literature on intuitionistic logic.
Oct 30 at 15:34 comment added Jason Carr Also: are there other original sources for the claims in the second half of this answer? Of course they're brief enough to understand here, but I was curious how much this topic has been addressed before
Oct 30 at 15:17 vote accept Jason Carr
Oct 30 at 15:16 comment added Jason Carr It took me a second to see why this schema is anti-classical. Since all intuitionistically definable functions can truly be computed by a Turing machine regardless of the presence of LEM, it would seem that each instance would be fine and so the whole would be. So the interesting character is in the $\forall x, \exists y, \phi(x, y) \to ...$ portion, for specific formulae. And so rather it's a direct assertion of the non-existence of such a proof for non-computable functions $\neg \forall x, \exists y, \phi(x,y)$. The contrapositive feels more enlightening here.
Oct 30 at 12:20 history edited Emil Jeřábek CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 30 at 12:15 history answered Emil Jeřábek CC BY-SA 4.0