No, just take $A$ and $B$ to be intervals
$$ \frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=1}^{n}| \mu (A) \cap T^{-k}(B) - \mu(A)\mu(B)|$$ is a sum of i.i.d random varables, then it's clearly not true that $\mu(A \cap T^n B) - \mu(A) \mu(B)$ is small on average since $T^n$ is uniformly distributed among$T^{-k}$ are i.i.d uniform circle rotations so by the law of large numbers it converges almost surely to the unit circleexpectation of one of these variables, which is $$ \mathbb E | \mu (A) \cap F^{-1}(B) - \mu(A)\mu(B)|$$ for (for all$F$ a random rotation.
This is nonzero for $n>0$) and$A,B$ any two intervals. In fact, it is equal to the long run average in the case that $\mu(A \cap T^n B) - \mu(A) \mu(B)$$T$ is large for some positive fraction of rotationsan irrational rotation, so this reduces to the case you already know.