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Oct 27 at 12:43 comment added Ziv Your example is essentially an instance of the following phenomenon: convergence in distribution can occur without convergence of density functions
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Oct 24 at 22:02 answer added Iosif Pinelis timeline score: 1
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Oct 19 at 15:00 comment added Riemann Thanks for your comment@MichaelRenardy! I thought about this, and the situation for $C$ seems to be much nicer than $f$. The reason is that $C$ is a monotone function (being a CDF). Knowing that the output of the Laplace Inversion is monotone, should make it much more well-behaved.
Oct 18 at 17:52 comment added Michael Renardy No chance. A simple integration by parts yields a simple relation between the Laplace transforms of C and f, so inverting one is basically as bad as inverting the other.
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Oct 18 at 11:40 comment added Riemann Hi David! So in my counterexample, I intended $f_n(t)$ to have finite support. When $\sigma$ is small, more than $99.99\%$ of the area under the lognormal distribution is inside of $[0,L]$. So to convert it to an actual probability distribution with finite support, we just need to multiply by a normalizing factor (like 1.0001).
Oct 18 at 11:37 comment added David This depends on the assumptions you make on $f_n(t)$: in the beginning you speak about $f(t)$ having finite support -> this is not true for your counterexample with log normal distributions. In general, you need a criterion on the tails of your random variables. Note that that the tail of the log normal distribution decays quite slowly as $t\to \infty$.
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