Skip to main content
8 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Oct 24 at 19:33 answer added Danny Ruberman timeline score: 4
Oct 8 at 11:48 comment added Bruno Martelli To be honest, also interpreting a smooth handle decomposition as a partition of $M$ is something that should be carefully explained... I prefer to see a handle decomposition as an operation. So even the question itself is not completely well-posed IMHO (and this makes it even more interesting).
Oct 8 at 8:18 answer added Ryan Budney timeline score: 2
Oct 7 at 23:23 comment added Ryan Budney I think so, but I don't recall exactly where to find this. I believe there's a fairly cheap and easy argument. I'll think about this on the way home from the office... You can get a piecewise smooth "Morse" function that does everything you want considering the distance to the barycentres of the top-dimensional simplices. The issue is how do you smooth that to a proper Morse function.
Oct 7 at 22:37 comment added Stefan Friedl the phrase "thicken the simplices into a handle decomposition" makes me a little nervous. As I wrote above: "In pictures this looks reasonable, but I am not sure about the technicalities". Is there any type of reference for such a statement? I don't know how to make this idea work.
Oct 7 at 22:34 history edited Stefan Friedl
edited tags
Oct 7 at 6:30 comment added Ryan Budney Yes, such things exist. The simplest approach is to take a smoothly-compatible triangulation to your manifold, and subdivide it until it is subordinate to your open cover. Then you thicken the simplices into a handle decomposition. I suppose this is your Morse theory question, but skipping the Morse theory. I would imagine these kinds of arguments go back to Morse.
Oct 7 at 6:13 history asked Stefan Friedl CC BY-SA 4.0