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Sep 25 at 8:24 comment added Cameron @LSpice the map is usually constructed as a perfect pairing $(\Lambda^*_kM)\times(\Lambda^*_kM^\vee)$. See Theorem 3.1 in Conrad's virtualmath1.stanford.edu/~conrad/diffgeomPage/handouts/…
Sep 24 at 16:15 comment added Tom Goodwillie You certainly need finite generation, even in the field case. Or at least, if $M$ is graded, finite generation in each degree. The canonical map $M^\vee\otimes M^\vee\to (M\otimes M)^\vee$ will not be surjective otherwise.
Sep 24 at 14:56 comment added LSpice When you refer to several proofs constructing a homomorphism, do they all go the same way? Which way? (I assume right to left, i.e., $\Lambda_k^*(M^\vee) \to (\Lambda_k^*(M))^\vee$.)
Sep 24 at 14:54 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 24 at 14:29 comment added Antonius I think the field case is ok, you can work with a Hamel basis.
Sep 24 at 14:27 comment added Z. M I think that the linked MO question says that this also holds for finite projective $k$-modules for any commutative ring $k$.
Sep 24 at 14:11 history asked Cameron CC BY-SA 4.0