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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Mar 2, 2013 at 8:35 vote accept J.C. Ottem
Mar 2, 2013 at 7:53 answer added Vesselin Dimitrov timeline score: 7
Oct 27, 2011 at 20:16 comment added Sándor Kovács Artie pointed out (to me) the connection between this and the question referenced in #2. Perhaps I should point out that the answer mathoverflow.net/questions/28326/… also gives relatively simple examples with Picard number 1-4.
Dec 4, 2010 at 0:39 vote accept J.C. Ottem
Mar 2, 2013 at 8:35
Dec 1, 2010 at 15:04 comment added Daniel Loughran @rita: Yes I see the problem now, thanks!
Dec 1, 2010 at 14:11 comment added Hailong Dao @Artie: no problem, as a novice I found your answer more concrete, +1
Dec 1, 2010 at 14:05 history edited J.C. Ottem CC BY-SA 2.5
added 77 characters in body
Dec 1, 2010 at 13:57 comment added user5117 Oops, I just read Francesco's answer in the linked question. He says essentially the same thing I do below, much more succinctly. I guess I'll leave mine there, since it gives a few more details.
Dec 1, 2010 at 13:54 answer added user5117 timeline score: 18
Dec 1, 2010 at 13:54 comment added Hailong Dao @ J.C: In fact, I just looked at my question again and Francesco's answer seems to be a counter-example to yours question.
Dec 1, 2010 at 13:24 comment added rita @Daniel: how do you show that an effective divisor with negative slf intersection exists?
Dec 1, 2010 at 13:24 comment added Hailong Dao J.C: I asked a similar question here mathoverflow.net/questions/41619/…
Dec 1, 2010 at 12:45 comment added Daniel Loughran For algebraic surfaces this result follows from the hodge index theorem. If the picard number is bigger than 1, then the intersection pairing on the orthogonal completement of any ample divisor is negative definite. Then any effective divisor with negative self-intersection is not ample. Is there is higher dimensional analogue of this?
Dec 1, 2010 at 12:26 history asked J.C. Ottem CC BY-SA 2.5