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Oct 30 at 16:05 comment added Sebastien Palcoux Here is a dedicated mathoverflow post: mathoverflow.net/q/481529/34538
Oct 30 at 8:05 comment added Sebastien Palcoux Does the poset of Frobenius subalgebras form a lattice? Based on your counterexample, it appears that the meet, if it exists, is not always determined by the intersection.
Oct 30 at 8:01 vote accept Sebastien Palcoux
Sep 22 at 6:56 comment added Dave Benson You're confused about the term "zero-dimensional". It refers to the Krull dimension, not the dimension as an algebra.
Sep 22 at 6:37 comment added Sebastien Palcoux Could you provide your reference for the claim that a Gorenstein ring is a Frobenius algebra? The last link you cited indicates that a zero-dimensional Gorenstein ring (under additional assumptions) is a Frobenius algebra. However, the example you mentioned is five-dimensional. Could you clarify this discrepancy?
Sep 11 at 13:23 comment added Dave Benson Then you should be able to express your question in terms of the usual axioms. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Frobenius_algebra
Sep 11 at 13:18 comment added Sebastien Palcoux A Frobenius algebra object in a monoidal category is both an algebra and a coalgebra object that satisfies the Frobenius condition. If the notation is consistent, a Frobenius algebra should be a Frobenius algebra object in the category ${\rm Vec}$. Therefore, a Frobenius algebra should inherently possess a coalgebra structure.
Sep 11 at 12:51 comment added Dave Benson I have no idea what you mean by the counit and the comultiplication. That isn't part of the structure of a Frobenius algebra.
Sep 11 at 12:45 comment added Sebastien Palcoux I have realized that my proof for the semisimple case necessitates an assumption stronger than symmetric. Specifically, I need the counit composed with the multiplication to be equal to the evaluation map ($\epsilon \circ m = ev_M$), and the comultiplication composed with the unit to be equal to the coevaluation map ($\delta \circ e = coev_M$). What does this stronger assumption translate to in the context of a (usual) Frobenius algebra (in ${\rm Vec}$)? Does your example meet this stronger assumption?
Sep 8 at 1:46 comment added Sebastien Palcoux Yes. I just posted the connected version: mathoverflow.net/q/478418/34538
Sep 8 at 1:20 vote accept Sebastien Palcoux
Sep 22 at 6:37
Sep 7 at 14:56 comment added Dave Benson There seem to be several ways to interpret this for a Frobenius algebra. You're given a map $M \otimes M \to k$, which by adjunction gives a left and a right map $M \to M^*$. So $i^*_A\circ i_A$ really means $A \to M \to M^* \to A^* \to A$ using some choices for these maps? Even so, since my example is not just Frobenius but also symmetric, the map $M \otimes M \to k$ is symmetric so these choices agree. Then I think it just amounts to saying that the symmetric bilinear form on $A$ is the restriction of that on $M$. In my example this seems to already hold.
Sep 7 at 13:55 comment added Sebastien Palcoux Let $f: X \to Y$ be a morphism in a rigid monoidal category. Then $f^*: Y^* \to X^*$ is the dual morphism.
Sep 7 at 13:09 comment added Dave Benson What is $i^*_A$?
Sep 7 at 11:46 comment added Sebastien Palcoux Let me propose some possible additional assumptions. Please let me know if you find them relevant. Suggestion 1: Assume that $i_A^* \circ i_A = \mathrm{id}_A$ and $i_B^* \circ i_B = \mathrm{id}_B$. Suggestion 2: If the notations are coherent, Frobenius algebras are precisely the Frobenius algebra objects in the tensor category $\mathrm{Vec}$. Thus, assuming the Frobenius algebra to be "connected" (i.e., $\mathrm{Hom}_{\mathcal{C}}(1, M)$ is one-dimensional) allows us to avoid $\mathrm{Vec}$. Would these additional assumptions be relevant in addressing the problem?
Sep 7 at 10:33 comment added Dave Benson The point here is that you can have a finite dimensional vector space with a non-degenerate quadratic form, and two non-degenerate subspaces whose intersection is degenerate.
Sep 7 at 10:20 history answered Dave Benson CC BY-SA 4.0