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Sep 1 at 16:14 vote accept A. J. Pan-Collantes
Aug 31 at 19:23 answer added Robert Bryant timeline score: 4
Aug 30 at 19:28 comment added Robert Bryant I guess the problem is that your $L$ is not even $C^1$ where $\dot q = 0$. We usually require the Lagrangian to be $\dot q$-convex, i.e., $L_{\dot q\dot q}$ exists everywhere and is nonzero. If you allow time dependence, this problem goes away: $L = \mathrm{e}^t\dot q^2$ is smooth and convex.
Aug 30 at 13:23 comment added A. J. Pan-Collantes @RobertBryant Sorry, I copied it wrong from my notes. It is $L=-q+\dot{q} \ln(\dot{q})$. The Euler-Lagrange eq is $\frac{\ddot{q}}{\dot{q}}=-1$
Aug 29 at 7:27 history edited A. J. Pan-Collantes
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Aug 29 at 7:22 comment added A. J. Pan-Collantes @RobertBryant I must have misunderstood something very silly. Why is not a valid Lagrangian $L=-q+\ln(\dot{q})$? Its E-L equation is $\ddot{q}=\dot{q}$, if I am right...
Aug 27 at 17:06 comment added Robert Bryant You might want to have a look at mathoverflow.net/questions/379946/…. In particular, the equation $\ddot q + \dot q = 0$ does not have a Lagrangian that is independent of time, but it is the E-L equation of the functional $\int \mathrm{e}^t {\dot q}^2\, \mathrm{d}t$.
Aug 27 at 16:14 history edited Daniele Tampieri CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 27 at 16:06 history asked A. J. Pan-Collantes CC BY-SA 4.0