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Aug 3 at 19:07 answer added jlewk timeline score: 6
Aug 3 at 18:02 vote accept Aditya Bandekar
Aug 3 at 16:16 answer added Dima Pasechnik timeline score: 2
Aug 3 at 15:40 answer added Joseph timeline score: 11
Aug 3 at 15:22 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
it's -> its
Aug 3 at 15:02 history edited Aditya Bandekar CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 3 at 15:00 comment added Aditya Bandekar Yes. If (A+A^T)/2 = A, then we automatically know (A+A^T)/2 = A^T as well because (A+A^T)/2 is symmetric. So yes the equality case is (A+A^T)/2 = A = A^T. I'll edit that into the question.
Aug 3 at 14:57 comment added Dima Pasechnik that is A=A^T - right?
Aug 3 at 14:50 history edited Aditya Bandekar CC BY-SA 4.0
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S Aug 3 at 14:47 review First questions
Aug 3 at 15:02
S Aug 3 at 14:47 history asked Aditya Bandekar CC BY-SA 4.0