Timeline for When does an inner product on $C(K)$ come from integration?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Aug 2 at 20:57 | comment | added | Mark Roelands | @Gerald Edgar Yes, I suppose you can integrate nonzero functions to zero. | |
| Aug 2 at 20:56 | comment | added | Mark Roelands | @Yemon Choi Thank you for pointing that out! The drawing board it is. | |
| Aug 2 at 20:22 | comment | added | Gerald Edgar | Hint: What is wrong with inner product $\iint_{[0,1]\times[0,1]} f(x) g(y)\,dx\,dy$ ? | |
| Aug 2 at 19:44 | comment | added | Yemon Choi | You cannot identify $C(K\times K)$ with the projective tensor product; it identifies with the injective tensor product. So I think one needs to go back to the drawing board | |
| Aug 2 at 18:56 | history | asked | Mark Roelands | CC BY-SA 4.0 |