Let $(G,K)$ be a Gelfand pair. Why, for a function ( f ) ( K$f$ )$K$-binvariant with respect to a compact subgroup ( K )$K$ of a group ( G )$G$, do we have the following equality: $$ f(xy) = \int_K f(xky) \, dk$$
A function $ f : G \to \mathbb{C} $ is $ K $-binvariant if for all $ k_1, k_2 \in K $ and $ x \in G $ $$ f(k_1 x k_2) = f(x). $$