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Jul 30 at 13:19 history edited Abdelmalek Abdesselam CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 18 at 19:51 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 18 at 19:29 history edited Abdelmalek Abdesselam CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 14 at 10:55 history edited Abdelmalek Abdesselam CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 11 at 11:57 comment added darij grinberg Ah, Proposition 2.4, I see! I should have waited until that page.
Jul 11 at 11:57 comment added darij grinberg Yes, and the converse is even easier. My restatement has the advantage(?) of looking like a linear analogue of the Hadamard inequality, but I'm not sure if this advantage is anything more than aesthetic.
Jul 11 at 11:57 comment added Abdelmalek Abdesselam @darijgrinberg: in section 2 I explain from scratch these equivalences around the notion of IFDZ, and do so in a very explicit way.
Jul 11 at 11:55 comment added Abdelmalek Abdesselam One can reduce to the case $\forall i,j$, $\min(A_{ij},B_{ij})=0$ and then indeed show the equivalence with your reformulation.
Jul 11 at 11:55 comment added darij grinberg Incidentally, your work is great and I'm reading it right now! Just wondering whether the equivalence (in the middle of page 3) between $\mathcal{R}$ being an IFDZ and $\widehat{\mathcal{R}}^{\mathbb{E}}$ being identically zero is supposed to be obvious at that point, or if it is meant to be proved later. (It looks to me like a restatement of the Proposition in §6 of Al-Amrani's Introduction, which however isn't fully obvious.)
Jul 11 at 11:48 comment added darij grinberg I would restate this inequality (which is nice and new to me!) as follows: If $M$ is a real $n\times n$-matrix, then $\left|\det M\right| \leq \prod_{i=1}^n \omega_i\left(M\right)$, where $\omega_i\left(M\right)$ is the maximum absolute value of a sum of a sub-tuple of the $i$-th row of $M$.
Jul 11 at 11:43 history asked Abdelmalek Abdesselam CC BY-SA 4.0