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Ayman Moussa
Ayman Moussa
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I don't think so. If this was true this would imply boundedness in $L^2$ for your sequence and in the particular case when $f=0$, this would mean that strong convergence in $H^{-2}$ implies boundedness in $L^2$, which is not plausible at all (think of a constant sequence !).

I don't think so. If this was true this would imply boundedness in $L^2$ for your sequence and in the particular case when $f=0$, this would mean that strong convergence in $H^{-2}$ implies boundedness in $L^2$, which is not plausible at all (think of a constant sequence !).

I don't think so. If this was true this would imply boundedness in $L^2$ for your sequence and in the particular case when $f=0$, this would mean that strong convergence in $H^{-2}$ implies boundedness in $L^2$, which is not plausible at all.

Source Link
Ayman Moussa
Ayman Moussa
  • 3.4k
  • 1
  • 16
  • 24

I don't think so. If this was true this would imply boundedness in $L^2$ for your sequence and in the particular case when $f=0$, this would mean that strong convergence in $H^{-2}$ implies boundedness in $L^2$, which is not plausible at all (think of a constant sequence !).