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Jun 29 at 0:39 vote accept Javier
Jun 27 at 23:27 answer added TaQ timeline score: 1
Jun 22 at 17:01 answer added TaQ timeline score: 2
Jun 22 at 5:51 history edited Daniele Tampieri CC BY-SA 4.0
Minor Math Jaxing
Jun 22 at 3:53 history edited Javier CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 22 at 3:52 history edited Javier CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 21 at 17:46 comment added TaQ Whatever reasonable meaning you give to "$C(\Omega)$", for the two-dimensional $\Omega$ in my first comment above, the claim $W^1_\infty(\Omega)\subset W^1_\infty(\mathbb{R}^n)|_\Omega$ does not hold. Then only $(*)$ remains, and the truth of this depends on the definition of "$C(\Omega)$".
Jun 21 at 17:19 comment added TaQ It would be "natural" to take $C(\Omega)$ the space of all continuous functions $\Omega\to\mathbb R$ with the topology of uniform convergence on compact subsets, but then the resulting "Sobolev space" would only be Fréchet but not Banach, and this is contrary to the usual purpose of using Sobolev spaces.
Jun 21 at 17:12 comment added TaQ You do not define what you mean by "$C(\Omega)$", but if the given definition of Sobolev space is intended to give the usual Banach space, and hence $C(\Omega)$ is taken to be some Banach space of bounded functions, then the claim $f\in W^1_\infty(\Omega)$ need not hold for $\Omega$ arbitrary bounded connected open set For example, in dimension two consider the set of points $(t,s)$ with $0<t<1$ and $\sin(t^{-1})<s<\sin(t^{-1})+1\,$.
Jun 21 at 16:05 history edited Javier CC BY-SA 4.0
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S Jun 21 at 16:01 review First questions
Jun 21 at 18:22
S Jun 21 at 16:01 history asked Javier CC BY-SA 4.0