Timeline for Does a "good" homotopy equivalence between pairs imply homotopy equivalence between quotient spaces?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jun 26 at 17:02 | vote | accept | Ondrej Draganov | ||
| Jun 22 at 8:20 | comment | added | Tyrone | If the pairs $(X,A), (Y,B)$ have the homotopy extension property, then this holds. It also holds when the two pairs have the weak homotopy extension property. I'm not sure much more can be said without strengthening the assumptions somewhat. | |
| Jun 22 at 8:20 | answer | added | HenrikRüping | timeline score: 4 | |
| Jun 21 at 13:47 | comment | added | HenrikRüping | A 'bad' example is the case of $(S^1,(1,0))$ and $(S^1,S^1\setminus (-1,0))$ and the map is the identity. | |
| Jun 21 at 11:52 | history | asked | Ondrej Draganov | CC BY-SA 4.0 |